CUET Business Studies Sample Paper

CUET (UG) Entrance Exam Section II Commerce Group Domain Subject Business Studies Sample Paper for free online practice. This practice mock test is as per latest syllabus and very useful for the admission for the session 2023-2024.

Sample Paper : Business Studies

Number of Questions : attempt any 40, out of 50 questions
Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: Management can be considered as
(a) an art
(b) a science
(c) Both art and science
(d) None of the above

Q.2: Which of the following highlights the importance of coordination?
(a) Growth in size
(b) Functional differentiation
(c) Specialisation
(d) All of the above

Q.3: CEO is at which level of management in a company?
(a) All levels of management
(b) Supervisory level of management
(c) Middle level of management
(d) Top level of management

Q.4: Which objectives of management deals with the commitment of an organisation towards the society?
(a) Personal objectives
(b) Social objectives
(c) Organisational objectives
(d) Economic objectives

Q.5: Who gave the concept of scientific management?
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) Seymour
(c) Philip Kotler
(d) F W Taylor

Q.6: Under which system of wage payment, wages are paid on the basis of work done?
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Motion study
(c) Time study
(d) Differential piece wage system

Q.7: Name the principle of scientific management which emphasised that there should be complete harmony between the management and workers.
(a) Harmony, not discord
(b) Cooperation, not individualism
(c) Science, not rule of thumb
(d) Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency

Q.8: Management should find ‘One best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this statement?
(a) Time study
(b) Motion study
(c) Fatigue study
(d) Method study

Q.9: What is included in legal environment of business?
(a) Several acts passed by government
(b) Court judgements
(c) Statutory warning prescribed under law
(d) All of the above

Q.10: Obstacles to privatization are
(a) opposition by laborer’s
(b) problem of financing
(c) political pressure
(d) All of the above

Q.11: ‘‘Nothing can be said with certainty about the factors of business environment’’. Why?
(a) Because business environment is simple
(b) Because business environment is dynamic
(c) Because business environment is certain
(d) Because business environment is inter-related

Q.12: Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi initiated and coined the slogan “Make in India.” Which dimension of business environment does this pertain to?
(a) Economic environment
(b) Political environment
(c) Legal environment
(d) Social environment

Q.13: Name the most critical step in the process of planning.
(a) Implementing the plan
(b) Developing the plan
(c) Selecting the best possible course of action
(d) None of the above

Q.14: Name the type of plan in which the move of competitors is considered.
(a) Budget
(b) Rule
(c) Strategy
(d) Method

Q.15: Which of these is not a feature of planning?
(a) Futuristic
(b) Mental exercise
(c) Reduces overlapping
(d) Continuous process

Q.16: A company wants to introduce a new product. What type of plan should it prepare?
(a) Objective
(b) Strategy
(c) Policy
(d) None of these

Q.17: The organisation process starts with
(a) assignment of duties
(b) establishing reporting relationships
(c) identification and division of work
(d) departmentalisation

Q.18: Which of the following is not an importance of delegation of authority?
(a) Effective management
(b) Relief to top-managers
(c) Facilitation of growth
(d) Basis of management hierarchy

Q.19: Organising can be defined as
(a) a structure
(b) a process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) a function of planning

Q.20: What explains informal organisation the best?
(a) All departments in an organisation reports to a coordinating head
(b) Network of personal and social relationships that arise as people associate with other people in a work environment
(c) This structure is created intentionally by the managers for achievement of organisational goal
(d) None of the above

Q.21: Which of these involve shifting of an employee from one job to another?
(a) Apprenticeship programmes
(b) Coaching
(c) Internship training
(d) Job rotation

Q.22: The process of introducing the selected employee to other employees and making him familiar with rules and policies of the organisation is known as
(a) Orientation
(b) Compensation
(c) Promotion
(d) Career planning

Q.23: Which is the first step of the process of staffing?
(a) Estimation of manpower requirement
(b) Recruitment
(c) Selection
(d) Performance appraisal

Q.24: Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Staffing is a never ending process.
(b) Effective staffing ensures success of the organisation.
(c) HRM is both a line and staff activity.
(d) Recruitment and staffing are one and the same thing.

Q.25: Name the barrier which is related to the personality of sender and receiver.
(a) Semantic barrier
(b) Psychological barrier
(c) Organisational barrier
(d) Personal barrier

Q.26: A good leader should have
(a) physical qualities
(b) good communication skills
(c) motivation skills
(d) All of the above

Q.27: Which one of the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Delegation
(d) Supervision

Q.28: Mr. Shriram, the manager of W Ltd. explains a worker about operations to be carried out by him on a hi-tech machine. Which element of directing is highlighted?
(a) Motivation
(b) Leadership
(c) Communication
(d) Supervision

Q.29: Budgetary control requires the preparation of
(a) training schedule
(b) budgets
(c) network diagram
(d) responsibility centres

Q.30: In controlling process, the next stage after setting performance standards is
(a) measurement of actual performance
(b) comparing actual performance with standards
(c) analysing deviations
(d) taking corrective action

Q.31: An efficient control system helps to
(a) judge accuracy of standards
(b) boost employee morale
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.32: Which of the following is not an importance of controlling?
(a) Judging accuracy of standards
(b) Effective use of resources
(c) Ensures order and discipline
(d) Exploitation of resources

Q.33: Financial management helps in
(a) reducing the cost of funds
(b) keeping the risks under control
(c) achieving effective deployment of funds
(d) All of the above

Q.34: Financial leverage is called favourable if
(a) return on investment is lower than the cost of debt
(b) ROI is higher than the cost of debt
(c) debt is easily available
(d) if the degree of existing financial leverage is low

Q.35: The impact of financial leverage on the profitability of a business can be seen through which analysis?

Q.36: Long-term financial planning is done for
(a) zero to one year
(b) more than one year
(c) ten to twenty years
(d) twenty to thirty years

Q.37: MD of Perk Ltd., Paul suggested that since the economy is buoyant, the company should invest in ……… market to take advantage of economy.
(a) primary market
(b) secondary market
(c) money market
(d) capital market

Q.38: Clearing and settlement operations of NSE are carried out by
(a) NSDL
(c) SBI
(d) CDSL

Q.39: Which market helps in channelising surplus funds into the most productive uses?
(a) Financial market
(b) Wholesale market
(c) Retail market
(d) None of these

Q.40: Stock exchange helps in
(a) providing liquidity to existing securities
(b) contributing to economic growth
(c) pricing of securities
(d) All of the above

Q.41: Computer education is an example of ……… being marketed.
(a) ideas
(b) information
(c) experience
(d) services

Q.42: Abhinav Mehta, Marketing Manager of Roop Cosmetics, is facing the problem of poor sales.
What mode of communication he can adopt to target the large population?
(a) Newspaper
(b) Television
(c) Radio
(d) All of these

Q.43: The function of marketing, concerned with informing the customers about the firm’s product is
(a) market analysis
(b) standardisation
(c) promotion
(d) grading

Q.44: Which of the following is the function of marketing?
(a) Gathering and analysing market information
(b) Marketing planning
(c) Standardisation and grading
(d) All of the above

Q.45: The Consumer Protection Act provides a number of reliefs to the consumers including replacement of the product, removal of defect in the product, compensation paid for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer, etc. Identify the right of consumer.
(a) Right to be informed
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Q.46: Saumya purchased a watch from a Titan Gallery.
As a proof of purchase, what she should ask for?
(a) Invoice
(b) Cash memo
(c) Warranty card
(d) None of these

Q.47: When the value of goods and services, along with compensation claimed is more than 10 crore, then the complaint can be filed in …… .
(a) State Commission
(b) National Commission
(c) District Commission
(d) None of the above

Q.48: In what way the objective of consumer protection can be achieved?
(a) Self-regulation by business
(b) Business associations
(c) Government
(d) All of the above

Q.49: Set of beliefs that provide standards which guide behavior is known as
(a) Attitude
(b) Values
(c) Motivation
(d) None of these

Q.50: An entrepreneur is
(a) born
(b) made
(c) Either born or made
(d) All of these

Answer Key : CUET Business Studies Sample Paper

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) entrance test Business Studies Sample Paper. Best wishes for upcoming 2023 -2024 exams.

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